John 3:16  For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth on him should not perish, but have eternal life. ASV

John 3:16  For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life. KJV

John 3:16  For God so loved the world that He gave His only begotten Son, that everyone believing into Him should not perish, but have everlasting life. LITV

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                                                                          COMMENTARY

Just about everybody, including so-called "reformed" people, get to this verse & acquire amnesia over verses 3 & 5!

Everyone including "reformed" people who believe in the "dok-trines of grace" will make every attempt to try and convince people to "believe" in exactly the manner as if it were entirely possible for any unregenerate person to do so when this very passage teaches that it is Impossible to do anything toward salvation unless God regenerates the person  ~First~! Messiah said unless one is born from above he CANNOT! Yet these people present the Gospel in such a way as to say that they CAN!

Also... the verse no way proves God loves the reprobate.

The "Sufficient/Efficient" argument.
-->The Atonement was 'sufficient' to save the entire world, or even a 1000 worlds; but it is only "efficient" for those who believe.

The only way it can be "sufficient" for anybody is if He fully satisfied Divine Justice for their sin. But if He satisfies Divine Justice for -any- bodies sin then God is under Divine Obligation to bring that person to salvation. He ~cannot~ send that person to Hell. But if Christ did -not- fully satisfy Divine Justice for a person's sin then the Atonement is  -Not-  "sufficient" to save that person.

Now... the question to the "Reformed Theologians/Calvinists" who claim "Doctrines of Grace" but believe  the "Sufficient/Efficient" argument is... *What is it that makes the Atonement  "Efficient"  for the elect?
If they say 'His sufferings' then they are forced to say He suffered for the sins of the reprobate as well. Why? Because if he did not suffer for the reprobate's sins then how is the Atonement "sufficient" to save them? If he did not suffer for their sins then that means there is no provision for their salvation which destroys any notion of "sufficiency" for the reprobate.

But if they say 'Faith' then they are Arminians and not Calvinists. Arminians believe in the S/E argument. They say their jesus died for ~E-e-v-v-rybody~ which is "sufficiency" but now you gotta crank up your free will and cast your vote for g-zuz; then you're saved. That means salvation is grounded in the activity of the sinner -Believing- by the power of his free will. That's an Arminian works salvation. But in order to maintain this view it is -Necessary- to hold that he suffered for the sins of everybody in the whole human race. Therefore there's no difference between Arminianism and the S/E argument; they are one and the same.

Further any notion of Free Will totally destroys the context because Free Willers usually hold that free will is powerful enough to respond to the Gospel ~before~ regeneration but Messiah says right here in this passage in plain language that unless a man is regenerated he is totally unable to even see, much less enter into the Kingdom of God.

John

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