1Jn 3:9  Whosoever is begotten of God doeth no sin, because his seed abideth in him: and he cannot sin, because he is begotten of God. ASV

1Jn 3:9  Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin; for his seed remaineth in him: and he cannot sin, because he is born of God. KJV

1Jn 3:9  Everyone who has been begotten of God does not sin, because His seed abides in him, and he is not able to sin, because he has been born of God. LITV

1Jn 3:9  Everyone who has been born of God does not commit sin, because His seed remains in him, and he cannot sin, because he has been born of God. MKJV
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                                     COMMENTARY

  1Pe 4:1 Forasmuch then as Christ suffered in the flesh, arm ye yourselves also with the same mind; for he that hath suffered in the flesh hath ceased from sin;

Peter cannot be referring to Christ by the phrase "he that hath suffered in the flesh hath ceased from sin" because Christ never committed any sin. One cannot 'cease' doing something he has never done. It's referring to Christians.

  Gill's turn to call God a liar. He says... 'they are not free from sin,'.  But God says otherwise folks. Rom_6:18  Rom_6:22
Moreover Gill further changes the word of God by referencing 1Jo_5:18 and announcing "for that which is born of God in him," is what keeps him whereas the verse clearly says that the person who is born of God keeps -himself-!

  Again John states in no uncertain terms that all regenerate persons do not commit sin.  How much more clearer & plainer can language get folks? If the Holy Spirit wanted to convey the truth that saved people do not sin how in the world else could He possibly have said it any clearer than here in 1John 3?

  Not only that but he goes even further and tells us that a Christian no longer has the ~ability~ to sin! What? Yep, that's exactly right. Read the verse. It plainly says... "he is not  ~able~  to sin". The Greek word is 'dunamis' from which we get the word 'dynamite'. In other words, a Christian no longer has the Power to sin. In context that means he no longer has the power, or ability to live continually in sin.

  Scott Price in Ohio thinks this verse is talking about our state of justification. This is indicative of the false doctrine of "Positional" holiness.

  As already noted in 3:1, the entire context of this passage is talking about the doctrine of Sanctification in conjunction with Regeneration. It says nothing of the doctrine of Justification.
It's design was to refute the Gnostics who continued to live a life of sin.  Moreover it is also speaking of the moral quality of the nature of a Christian, not his "state". The passage is describing a person who is Righteous in his Character and Personality! Such a person, says the Apostle John, is positively doing that which is righteous, vs 7 and negatively, is not doing that which is unrighteous. That is to say... he does -not- commit sin! This is talking about his Conduct. Men such as Bill Parker, Bobby Bullington, & Scott Price, who call themselves pastors, deny this and say this passage is not speaking of Character & Conduct but of one’s "state"! In so doing they destroy language and deny the Bible, not to mention they identify with the Gnostic heretics who were living in sin.

  How can we understand this verse as well as the entire passage that clearly teaches Christians do not sin, in the light of the fact that Christians do sin? It's really very simple. There is a vast difference between occasional sin and a complete life style of continuous sin. When John says Christians do not sin he means they are walking in Newness of Life, which is a life style that is marked by an absence of sin. That is, sin for the Christian is now the exception, not the norm. Such people are regenerate. Conversely, when John talks about committing sin he means living a life style that is marked by sin. Sin is not only the norm, it is the totality of everything they are and do. Such people are unregenerate. Otherwise this and a host of other passages in the Bible make no sense. In short, John is giving a detailed description of the difference between the children of God and the children of the Devil. And that is exactly what he says in the next verse.

Which one do you think is the Romans 7 guy?

1John

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